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2025 WGU Secure-Software-Design: Professional Latest WGUSecure Software Design (KEO1) Exam Exam Topics

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WGUSecure Software Design (KEO1) Exam Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):

NEW QUESTION # 26
While performing functional testing of the new product from a shared machine, a QA analyst closed their browser window but did not logout of the application. A different QA analyst accessed the application an hour later and was not prompted to login. They then noticed the previous analyst was still logged into the application.
How should existing security controls be adjusted to prevent this in the future?

A. Ensure user sessions timeout after short intervals
B. Ensure no sensitive information is stored in plain text in cookies
C. Ensure strong password policies are enforced
D. Ensure role-based access control is enforced for access to all resources

Answer: A

Explanation:
The issue described involves a session management vulnerability where the user's session remains active even after the browser window is closed, allowing another user on the same machine to access the application without logging in. To prevent this security risk, it's essential to adjust the session management controls to include an automatic timeout feature. This means that after a period of inactivity, or when the browser window is closed, the session should automatically expire, requiring a new login to access the application. This adjustment ensures that even if a user forgets to log out, their session won't remain active indefinitely, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
References:
* Secure SDLC practices emphasize the importance of security at every stage of the software development life cycle, including the implementation of proper session management controls12.
* Best practices for access control in security highlight the significance of managing session timeouts to prevent unauthorized access3.
* Industry standards and guidelines often recommend session timeouts as a critical security control to protect against unauthorized access4.

NEW QUESTION # 27
Which DKEAD category has a risk rating based on the threat exploit's potential level of harm?

A. Damage potential
B. Reproducibility
C. Affected users
D. Exploitability

Answer: A

Explanation:
The DKEAD category that has a risk rating based on the threat exploit's potential level of harm is Damage potential. This category assesses the total damage or impact that a threat could cause if it is exploited by an attacker. The risk rating in this category is determined by evaluating the severity of the potential damage, which could range from information disclosure to complete system destruction or loss of system availability.
References:
* DREAD Threat Modeling1
* OWASP Risk Rating Methodology2
* DREAD Threat Modeling: An Introduction to Qualitative Risk Analysis3

NEW QUESTION # 28
The product security incident response team (PSIRT) has decided to make a formal public disclosure, including base and temporal common vulnerability scoring system (CVSS) scores and a common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) ID report, of an externally discovered vulnerability.
What is the most likely reason for making a public disclosure?

A. The vulnerability reporter has threatened to make the finding public after being notified that their case was not credible.
B. The potential for increased public awareness of a vulnerability is probable, which could lead to higher risk for customers.
C. The response team has determined that the vulnerability is credible.
D. Notification of a vulnerability from an external party has occurred.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 29
The security testing team received a report from one of the contracted penetration testing vendors that details a flaw discovered in the login component of the new software product, along with a recommended fix.
Which phase of the penetration testing process is the team in?

A. Assess
B. Identify
C. Evaluate and plan
D. Deploy

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The team is in the Assess phase of penetration testing. This phase involves actively testing the software, identifying vulnerabilities, and documenting findings with recommendations. Receiving a report detailing a discovered flaw confirms that testing has been conducted and results are being evaluated. The Identify (A) phase involves defining scope and targets, Evaluate and Plan (B) covers planning test activities, and Deploy (C) refers to executing the test environment setup. The OWASP Penetration Testing Guide and NIST SP 800-
115 clarify that assessment includes vulnerability discovery and documentation.
References:
OWASP Penetration Testing Guide
NIST SP 800-115 Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment Microsoft SDL Security Testing Guidance

NEW QUESTION # 30
The security team has received notice of an insecure direct object reference vulnerability in a third-party component library that could result in remote code execution. The component library was replaced and is no longer being used within the application.
How should the organization remediate this vulnerability?

A. Enforce the Removal of Unused Dependencies
B. Ensure Sensitive Information Is Not Logged
C. Access to Configuration Files Is Limited to Administrators
D. Ensure Auditing and Logging Is Enabled on All Servers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 31
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